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Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

Last Updated: 29.06.2025 00:35

Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.

Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.

Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.

What smell will you never forget?

You'll usually find your answer there.

If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.

While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.

How did Neo defeat the architect at the end of The Matrix: Reloaded? Was it solely due to his belief in himself or were there other factors at play?

Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.

There's no rule.

What's (not “whats”) the rule?

Am I in the wrong for getting upset with my neighbor who was weed whacking at 9 am on a Saturday? Should I apologize for being rude? I found this was obnoxious and inconsiderate, considering I work very late on weekends.

Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.